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Old January 16th, 2012 #35
Thomas de Aynesworth
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The problem with the alphabetical argument is that if one were say, use this criteria for the understanding of any movement of peoples, then one would end up with a vision of the world in which the Greeks migrated from Phoenicia (given that both Linear A and B descend from Phoenician), the Etruscan people coming from Greece (that the Etruscan alphabet seems to have been developed from Linear B) and worse yet, the Germans are in fact Etruscans (as the case for the German Futhark being a development of the Etruscanized Linear B script has been concisely made).

So no, an alphabet in Iberia descended from Phoenician script does not convince or even surprise me. Given that the Phoenicians were well seated in Carthage by the time in question (1st c. BC) and that the Carthaginians controlled a swathe of the Iberian Peninsula, it is quite obvious as to why the Iberian script developed as it did. Another thing to note, if the Iberians migrated from Caucasian Iberia a few thousand years ago, then it would be quite a stretch to use an alphabet used by the Phoenicians that apparently influenced the Iberian alphabet when the earliest use of Phoenician comes from around the 1st millennia BC, after the alleged sojourn you envision.