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Old May 30th, 2013 #21
Cassinelli
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mael View Post
The kanji means "I." It sounds like 'watashi.' The kanji has several other correct interpretations.

I'm not trying to belittle your claim that 'watashi' is used by women, as 'watashi' is used in spoken Japanese by women far more than men use it. Men would use personal pronouns such as 'boku,' but actually this is quite childish and casual - but perfectly acceptable and normal.

A man would correctly refer to himself in the personal pronoun using the same kanji as women do, but the reading is slightly different. Men would read "watashi" as "watakushi." But then again, women can and do also refer to themselves (correctly) as 'watakushi.' "Watakushi" is rather formal. It is OK to use 'watashi/watakushi' by men for official purposes, but to use it in casual conversation is seen as somewhat feminine.

In written Japanese, the kanji for "watashi" is the same for men and women.

* I use watashi quite unashamedly and a number of people have commented that my usage is correct, but it shows I learnt Japanese from women and not at some school.
When I refer to myself I rather use "boku or ore wa" than "watashi" one. I know it wasn't exclusively used by women, but it would be more formal to his presentation, isn't it?
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Old June 12th, 2013 #22
Anders Hoveland
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Quote:
Originally Posted by M. Gerard View Post
Anyway, Japan had the Ainu who really were whites living there first and then the Asians moved in. (The photos we see of Ainu today are mongrels. They apparently were Nordics.)
I do not think the Ainu were "white", but I do strongly suspect that they were much more closely related to Europeans than the other Asian peoples in the area.

Archeologists believe that the Ainu migrated to the Northern parts of Japan at around the same time that the original Jōmon (presumably originating from southeast asia) migrated to the southern parts of Japan. Jōmon artifacts are found all throughout Japan, including on the northern island of Hokkaido, so likely there was some ethnic admixture. Later, it is believed, there was gradual migration of peoples from China through the Korean peninsula to Japan, who completely interbred with the Jōmon peoples already there. However, this later wave of migration seems to have made the greatest contribution to the main island of Honshu. The modern-day Japanese residing in the smaller southern islands Kyūshū and Okinawa likely are more representative of the previous Jōmon peoples. This is suggested by certain DNA markers, and by the fact they have a slightly darker skin complexion than mainland Japanese.

While there was likely some genetic exchange before then, the Ainu people remained a distinct people on the island of Hokkaido and the northernmost parts of Honshū up into the feudal era, when the mainland Japanese began settling northward. During the feudal era, the Ainu were subjugated. Since they were known to be good warriors, many were invited to fight for local Lords in Honshū, and so many Samurai family lines have large proportions of Ainu blood.

It is a mystery where exactly the Ainu came from, but it is interesting to speculate. The modern-day Siberians lack the Caucasian-like physical features of the Ainu, so one wonders whether there was a later migration that erased all traces of Ainu-like people that may have inhabited the northeastern part of Russia before then. And from what part of Europe, and at what time stage did the Ainu leave? Did they branch off from the original Caucasians? Or were they most closely related to the Uralic people (who are the descendants of the original Finns, Laplanders, and Hungarians) ?

Quote:
Originally Posted by M. Gerard View Post
I have the impression the early photos of the pure white Ainu are suppressed.
Yes, there is some suppression going on in the fields of history and anthropology in universities. But I doubt the original Japanese Ainu were actually what most would consider to be "white". They likely would have mixed to some extent with the asians along the way before they ever reached Japan.
 
Old June 15th, 2013 #23
Anders Hoveland
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Apparently I am not the first to notice similarities:
http://patenttranslator.wordpress.co...manic-tribe-2/

Quote:
both the Japanese and the German language has the verb at the end of the sentence, pretty much regardless of how long that sentence is. When you speak Japanese or German, you really have to concentrate on what you are saying because otherwise you may not remember which verb you were going to use at the end of a very long sentence. As far as I know, only the Japanese and the German language is insane exactly in this manner. Japanese interpreters who translate into English must wait until a sentence is finished (because in an English sentence, the verb usually comes right after the subject), while being glared at by an uncomprehending monolingual lawyer who is in charge of the deposition.

One thing in the insane German language that Mark Twain riled against was what he called split verbs. Japanese does not have an exact copy of German “split verbs”, but it has 助詞 (joshi, auxiliary words or particles) which are positioned after the relevant noun or adverb or anything else, something like “postpositions”, which to my mind are very similar. Let’s first take a look at Mark’s Twain English explanation of what a German split verb looks like.

In addition to seemingly unexplainable linguistic similarities between the Japanese and the German language, there are also many similarities confirming my theory about the same origin of both nations between cultural concepts that can be seen for example in Japanese and German idioms. Certain ingrained cultural notions and attitudes translate seamlessly from Japanese to German and vice versa, but not to other languages. One of them is the basic Japanese and German natural rule that everything, and I mean everything, has to be structured in a certain way. There are absolutely no exceptions! The Japanese word for this philosophy of a certain natural and preordained structure in absolutely everything! is ちゃんと (chanto, which could be translated as proper or correct in English, and as was sich gehört or geignet in German).
 
Old June 20th, 2013 #24
Jimmy Marr
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Old June 21st, 2013 #25
Togar mah
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European R1b is dominated by R-M269. The frequency is about 71% in Scotland, 70% in Spain, 60% in France and 33% in Germany. In south-eastern England the frequency of this clade is about 70%; in parts of the rest of north and western England, Spain, Portugal, Wales and Ireland, it is as high as 90%; and in parts of north-western Ireland it reaches 98%.

It has been found at generally low frequencies throughout central Eurasia, but with relatively high frequency among Bashkirs of the Perm Region (84.0%). This marker is also present in China and India at frequencies of less than one percent. Japan at 0.0%.
 
Old June 21st, 2013 #26
Anders Hoveland
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Togar mah View Post
European R1b is dominated by R-M269.
Japan at 0.0%.
Lack of a genetic marker does not necessarily imply there is no relation. There is something called the Bottleneck effect. If the Japanese have European descendants, at some point in time the lineage may have been very small population size, where no individuals existed with the particular marker to pass it on.

In Sweden the incidence of this maker is less than 30%.
 
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